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INTNODUCTION.

The circumstance which gave rise to this discussion was the publication of the following article in the Southern Pioneer and Gospel Visiter, a weekly journal, devoted to Universalism, printed in Baltimore. The article was copied from the Christian Intelligencer.

THE WHOLE COUNSEL.

Br. Fletcher of the Thomaston Telescope, noting the declaration of Paul-"I have not shunned to declare the whole counsel of God," asks how this fact is to be accounted for consistently with the other fact that in all his declarations he never used the word hell, nor mentioned such a place during his whole ministry? This is, indeed, an important inquiry-will some of our wise limitarians please to answer it?

Soon after the publication of the above Mr. McKee wrote for the Pioneer, the following answer, over the signature PHI

LADELPHIA.

Mr. Editor:-THE WHOLE COUNSEL.

On looking over the 22d number of the "Southern Pioneer," I observed an article

headed, "The whole counsel," copied from another paper, in which it is asked, how we are to account for the fact that St. Paul, who shunned not to declare the whole counsel of God, in all his declarations during his ministry, never once used the word hell nor mentioned such a place? Take the following as an answer:

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1. St. Paul delivered his discourses in the Greek and Hebrew languages and not in English: therefore, it is not strange that he never used the old Saxon word helle, which is now hell in English, but it would be very strange if he had used it as it neither belonged to the languages then spoken nor was understood by the people.

2. It is assumed as a well authenticated fact, that St. Paul during his whole ministry never mentioned such a place as hell. Now as the Apostle's discourses were not written, who without the attribute of omniscience can tell, but he did use some word equivalent to hell in signification more than a thousand times? The fact is, there is as much evidence to prove that he did as there is that he did not.

3. St. Paul preached the doctrine of endless punishment as unequivocally as any other man ever did. For in 2 Thes. i. 9. he declared that the wicked should be punished with everlasting destruction from the presence of the Lord and from

the glory of his power. Let it be observed that the word aionios here rendered everlasting is the same which is used in 2 Thes. ii. 16. to express the duration of the consolation of the righteous. See. 2. Tim. ii. 10. Rom. vi. 23, where it is similarly used. And 2. Cor. iv. 18, where it denotes the duration of all invisible things. As the same Greek word is employed to express both the duration of the happiness of the righteous, and the punishment of the wicked, what reason have we to believe that the latter will terminate sooneh than the former? Will as many editors publish this answer as copied the question and so let it travel over the same space?

To this Mr. Skinner gave the following reply:

REPLY TO PHILADELPHIA-Dear sir: The question to which your communication is designed as a reply, has been repeatedly propounded to our partialist friends; but it has never yet received a satisfactory answer. If the popular doctaine of hell torments be true, it is at least right to infer, that it was a doctrine of the apostles; and it is your duty to produce from their preaching authority for the sentiment, or cease from preaching it. But how can this be done, when the leading apostle, the one who labored more than all the others, was silent on the subject?

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